Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Counseling
Q:
Males make up ______percent of adult offenders on parole.
Q:
Parole violations that pertain to behavior that is not a crime, such as the failure to refrain from alcohol use, are called ____________________.
Q:
An official panel that determines whether an inmate serving an indeterminate sentence is ready for parole is the ____________________.
Q:
Actuarial devices predicting the risk of recidivism based on information about the offender and crime are known as ____________________.
Q:
The ____________________ has ruled that there is no legal right to parole.
Q:
When an inmate's unserved portion of his or her maximum prison term equals good time, he or she is released on ______________________.
Q:
If the conditions of their release are violated, mandatory releasees can have their ________________ revoked and be returned to the institution to serve the remainder of their unexpired term.
Q:
All 50 states restrict felons right to vote. a. True
b. False
Q:
A major flaw of the Second Chance Act is that it fails to provide funding to study such topics as smart probation projects, treatment of returning adults and juveniles with co-occurring substance abuse, and mental health disorders as is done in other countries.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The get-tough movement of the 1980s increased the statutory restrictions placed on parolees.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Thirty-one states have passed legislation allowing the use of lifetime community supervision for targeted groups of offenders, most notably sex offenders and offenders convicted of homicide.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Former inmates who get and keep a job are more likely to succeed on parole than those who are unemployed.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Examinations of statutory barriers indicate that as many as 300 occupations require licenses that are unobtainable by persons with felony convictions.
a. True
b. False
Q:
We know that most people fail on parole soon after they are released from prison; about 10 percent of all offenders are arrested during their first month back in the community.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A growing portion of the correctional population consists of parolees who failed on the outside.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The majority of offenders return to prison shortly after their release.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Research shows that offenders who fail upon reentry into the community do so long after they are released from prison.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Revocation procedures begin when the parole officer requests a warrant based on an alleged violation of parole.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A parolee does not have the opportunity to speak on his own behalf during revocation proceedings.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Parole officers have significant discretionary power.
a. True
b. False
Q:
All states allow parole officers to carry and use firearms
a. True
b. False
Q:
Parole officers tend to be younger and less experienced in the criminal justice system than probation officers.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Parolees may be subjected to searches by parole officers and police.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Employment of parole officers is expected to grow through 2014.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Discretionary parole decisions are made at a parole grant hearing.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Inmates who maintain their innocence may find that denying responsibility for their crimes places their release date in jeopardy.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Parole boards never meet with the offenders during a grant hearing.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The number of escapes from prisons is increasing due to untrained officers and poor security measures.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Ruth was just released from prison. She was released because the only time remaining on her sentence was equal to the good time that she earned. She was in prison for more than 10 years and is reluctant to return to her community. She does not have a job, has no permanent place to live, and is nervous that she will go back to her old habits of hanging with the "wrong crowd" and getting into trouble. Because of prison overcrowding, she must be released.
Ruth is having a hard time complying with the conditions of her parole. She thinks that her parole officer has too much control over her life and has violated her rights. Ruth's parole officer can search which of the following places without violating the requirements imposed by the Fourth Amendment?
a. Ruth's person
b. Ruth's home
c. Ruth's job
d. all of these
Q:
Ruth was just released from prison. She was released because the only time remaining on her sentence was equal to the good time that she earned. She was in prison for more than 10 years and is reluctant to return to her community. She does not have a job, has no permanent place to live, and is nervous that she will go back to her old habits of hanging with the "wrong crowd" and getting into trouble. Because of prison overcrowding, she must be released.
After meeting with her parole officer, it is determined that Ruth requires a more extensive supervision than is given for most parolees. Therefore, she is placed on:
a. advanced supervision parole.
b. extreme supervision parole.
c. intensive supervision parole.
d. special supervision parole.
Q:
Ruth was just released from prison. She was released because the only time remaining on her sentence was equal to the good time that she earned. She was in prison for more than 10 years and is reluctant to return to her community. She does not have a job, has no permanent place to live, and is nervous that she will go back to her old habits of hanging with the "wrong crowd" and getting into trouble. Because of prison overcrowding, she must be released.
All of the following are standard conditions of Ruth's parole except:
a. reporting to the parole officer within 1 month of prison release.
b. not carrying weapons.
c. reporting changes of address.
d. not committing crimes.
Q:
Ruth was just released from prison. She was released because the only time remaining on her sentence was equal to the good time that she earned. She was in prison for more than 10 years and is reluctant to return to her community. She does not have a job, has no permanent place to live, and is nervous that she will go back to her old habits of hanging with the "wrong crowd" and getting into trouble. Because of prison overcrowding, she must be released.
Ruth is not the typical parolee because she is a female. What percentage of adult parolees are female?
a. 2 percent
b. 11percent
c. 22 percent
d. 36 percent
Q:
Ruth was just released from prison. She was released because the only time remaining on her sentence was equal to the good time that she earned. She was in prison for more than 10 years and is reluctant to return to her community. She does not have a job, has no permanent place to live, and is nervous that she will go back to her old habits of hanging with the "wrong crowd" and getting into trouble. Because of prison overcrowding, she must be released.
What is the type of release that Ruth received?
a. automatic parole
b. discretionary parole
c. mandatory parole
d. selective parole
Q:
Your state has a severe prison overcrowding problem. One option to alleviate this overcrowding is to release inmates from prison early. Mr. Green, the head of the Department of Corrections in your state, meets with Mrs. Jones, who oversees the agency that determines whether an inmate serving his or her sentence is ready to be released early. They also discuss the requirements of the supervision of these inmates once they are released.
Mrs. Jones's agency is an independent agency that is separate from the Department of Corrections. Therefore, it follows the:
a. autonomous model.
b. consolidated model.
c. integrative model.
d. totalitarian model.
Q:
Your state has a severe prison overcrowding problem. One option to alleviate this overcrowding is to release inmates from prison early. Mr. Green, the head of the Department of Corrections in your state, meets with Mrs. Jones, who oversees the agency that determines whether an inmate serving his or her sentence is ready to be released early. They also discuss the requirements of the supervision of these inmates once they are released.
What is the name of the agency that Mrs. Jones heads?
a. department of corrections
b. probation board
c. early release board
d. parole board
Q:
Your state has a severe prison overcrowding problem. One option to alleviate this overcrowding is to release inmates from prison early. Mr. Green, the head of the Department of Corrections in your state, meets with Mrs. Jones, who oversees the agency that determines whether an inmate serving his or her sentence is ready to be released early. They also discuss the requirements of the supervision of these inmates once they are released.
Besides selecting the prisoners for early release, what other duties do Mrs. Jones and her employees perform?
a. They aid, supervise and provide community control of the parolees in the community.
b. They determine when to discharge each parolee.
c. They determine if parole should be revoked.
d. All of these.
Q:
Your state has a severe prison overcrowding problem. One option to alleviate this overcrowding is to release inmates from prison early. Mr. Green, the head of the Department of Corrections in your state, meets with Mrs. Jones, who oversees the agency that determines whether an inmate serving his or her sentence is ready to be released early. They also discuss the requirements of the supervision of these inmates once they are released.
Mr. Green and Mrs. Jones come up with a system where they will review the cases of inmates who have served their minimum sentence and those who have reached a rehabilitative level sufficient to deal with the outside world. Mrs. Jones and the rest of her boardwill then meet with each inmate and decide who they release early. This method is referred to as:
a. automatic parole.
b. discretionary parole.
c. mandatory parole.
d. selective parole.
Q:
Your state has a severe prison overcrowding problem. One option to alleviate this overcrowding is to release inmates from prison early. Mr. Green, the head of the Department of Corrections in your state, meets with Mrs. Jones, who oversees the agency that determines whether an inmate serving his or her sentence is ready to be released early. They also discuss the requirements of the supervision of these inmates once they are released.
This planned community release and supervision of incarcerated offenders before the expiration of their full prison sentences is known as:
a. furlough
b. pardon
c. parole
d. probation
Q:
What type of laws creates civil disabilities for parolees when they return to the community?
a. anti-establishment laws
b. disenfranchisement laws
c. minimum mandatory laws
d. three-strike laws
Q:
Restrictions placed on former felons that reduce the rights and privileges of those convicted of crimes are referred to as:
a. invisible bans.
b. invisible laws.
c. invisible punishments.
d. invisible sanctions.
Q:
The Second Chance Act:
a. allows technical violations to be overlooked.
b. allows inmates to earn more money during incarceration.
c. provides grant money for employment assistance, treatment, housing, and programming.
d. all of these choices.
Q:
Research shows that recidivism is affected by:
a. personal and situational characteristics.
b. incarceration experience.
c. the period after release.
d. all of these choices.
Q:
Research shows that it is difficult for parolees to succeed once released from prison for which of the following reasons?
a. psychological and economic problems of parolees
b. undereducated and unskilled parolees
c. parolees' lack family support systems
d. all of these
Q:
The offenders most likely to fail on parole are:
a. chronic offenders.
b. first-time offenders.
c. offenders with prison sentences over 50 years.
d. none of these choices.
Q:
What percentage of offenders released from prison return within 3 years?
a. less than 25 percent
b. 100 percent
c. more than 50 percent
d. around 10 percent
Q:
What was determined by the court in Morrissey v. Brewer?
a. the procedures for deciding who was eligible for parole
b. the procedures for revocation of parole
c. the procedures that parole officers must follow when searching a parolee
d. the procedures for obtaining an arrest warrant for a parole violator
Q:
What level of proof is required in order to hold a parolee in custody prior to a revocation hearing?
a. hunch
b. reasonable suspicion
c. probable cause
d. proof beyond a reasonable doubt
Q:
Who can issue a warrant once there is an alleged violation of parole?
a. parole officer
b. warrant officer
c. police officer
d. all of these
Q:
A formal procedure that takes place when a parole board decides that the parole must end because the offender committed a new crime or violated the conditions of parole is a:
a. revocation of parole.
b. parole denial.
c. parole release.
d. jury trial.
Q:
A parolee who violates the conditions of parole, and who has not committed a new crime, is returned to prison on what type of violation?
a. technical
b. conditional
c. discrimination
d. advanced
Q:
Parole officers are able to:
a. search person, places, or property of parolee.
b. order arrests without probable cause of parolee.
c. recommend revocation of parole for new crimes or for technical violations of parolee.
d. all of these choices.
Q:
The average caseload of a parole officer is approximately:
a. 150 parolees.
b. 38 parolees.
c. 10 parolees.
d. 200 parolees.
Q:
The most at-risk parolees are placed:
a. in halfway houses.
b. back in prison.
c. on intensive supervision.
d. all of these choices.
Q:
Technology used to aid supervision by parole agencies include:
a. concealed weapons detection.
b. remote alcohol and drug monitoring.
c. GPS.
d. all of these choices.
Q:
Field officers work with parolees:
a. in the community.
b. in the prisons.
c. both of these choices.
d. none of these choices.
Q:
Conditions of parole typically consist of:
a. reporting changes of address and employment.
b. not committing crimes.
c. not being in possession of weapons.
d. all of these choices.
Q:
An official panel that determines whether an inmate serving an indeterminate sentence is ready for parole is known as:
a. the parole board.
b. the department of corrections panel.
c. the correctional decision board.
d. none of these choices.
Q:
The majority of parolees were sentenced for:
a. sex offenses.
b. vehicle theft.
c. murder.
d. drug offenses.
Q:
The majority of adults on parole are:
a. equal between males and females.
b. female.
c. male.
d. none of these choices.
Q:
The salient factor score places inmates in the risk categories of:
a. very good, good, fair, or poor.
b. excellent, at risk, poor.
c. good, better, best.
d. poor, poorer, poorest.
Q:
The salient factor score used by parole boards to predict the risk of recidivism is based on:
a. the number of previous convictions.
b. the age at current offense.
c. drug dependency.
d. all of these choices.
Q:
When determining possible parole, the parole board looks at:a. the inmate's crime.b. the institutional record.c. the inmate's sincerity and readiness for release.d. all of these choices.
Q:
Formal risk prediction instruments are known as:
a. crime predictors.
b. parole guidelines.
c. parole predictors.
d. crime guidelines.
Q:
The parole board's authority to grant or deny parole is based on:
a. assessment of the risk of the inmate to the community.
b. assessment of the parolees readiness to return to the community.
c. both of these.
d. neither of these.
Q:
The duties of the parole board include:
a. charging and sentencing the offender.
b. aiding and supervising control of paroles in the community.
c. all of these choices.
d. none of these choices.
Q:
Inmates can be released from prison for:
a. expiration of their term.
b. commutation of their sentence.
c. court orders to relieve overcrowded prisons.
d. all of these choices.
Q:
Most inmates leave prison before the completion of their sentence and are placed:
a. in residential treatment.
b. on parole.
c. on house arrest.
d. none of these choices.
Q:
When an inmate is released when the unserved portion of the maximum prison term equals his or her earned good time, this is known as:
a. mandatory parole release.
b. discretionary parole.
c. limited parole.
d. community release.
Q:
Discretionary parole is decided by:
a. the warden.
b. the courts.
c. the parole board.
d. the parole officer.
Q:
In Maconochie's system of graduated release, which of the following was the final stage?
a. ticket of leave
b. globalization
c. good time
d. reference
Q:
The types of parole discussed in the text are:
a. discretionary parole and mandatory parole release.
b. community release and halfway house release.
c. limited parole and nonlimited parole.
d. all of these choices.
Q:
Parole is based on which of the following principles?
a. The state extends a privilege by releasing offenders from prison before their full sentence is served
b. It is a contract with offenders in exchange for their promise to abide by certain conditions where they return to prison to complete their sentences if they violate the contract
c. The state controls parolees until they are dismissed from parole
d. All of these choices
Q:
In 1854, Walter Crofton, a retired navy officer, was sent to introduce the progressive state system at the prison at Mountjoy, near Dublin. The complete program became known as the:
a. Irish Mark System.
b. Scottish Mark.
c. Ticket to leave.
d. Ticket to paradise.
Q:
The number of people on parole:
a. is on an upward trend.
b. declines each year.
c. remains approximately the same each year.
d. none of these choices.
Q:
Parole is:
a. only offered to an offender prior to serving time in prison.
b. only offered to nonviolent offenders.
c. the conditional release from confinement of an offender serving an indeterminate sentence.
d. all of these choices.
Q:
What rights may offenders lose because of their criminal record?
Q:
Discuss the Second Chance Act.
Q:
Discuss the social barriers that offenders face when they return to the community.
Q:
According to the research, what can be done to improve the effectiveness of parole?
Q:
Why do people fail parole?