Q&A Hero

Q: An underage minor who engages in antisocial activities that are defined as criminal behavior by the state's legal code are known as: a. status offenders b. juvenile delinquents c. convicts d. bad kids

Q: When was the juvenile justice system established? a. 25 years ago b. 50 years ago c. 75 years ago d. 100 years ago

Q: The primary responsibility of the juvenile justice system is to: a. deal with minors who violate the criminal law. b. provide parenting classes to parents of juvenile offenders. c. let juveniles off easy. d. none of these choices.

Q: What are some of the issues of juvenile offenders placed in adult prisons?

Q: What are the conditions that allow a juvenile to transfer into the adult court system?

Q: Discuss what aftercare consists of in the juvenile justice system.

Q: Explain the different types of residential community treatment programs.

Q: How do community treatment and institutional treatment differ for juveniles?

Q: Describe the significance of probation in relation to juveniles.

Q: Explain the role of the juvenile probation officer.

Q: Compare and contrast the juvenile system and the adult system.

Q: Discuss the concept of Parens Patriae.

Q: Explain the history of the juvenile justice system.

Q: A ___________________________is when the juvenile court makes the decision to transfer a juvenile to the adult court.

Q: Because of concern over violent juvenile offenders and the threat they pose to the community, state legislatures have passed laws permitting juveniles to be ____________________to adult court.

Q: The supervision of juveniles who are released from correctional institutions so that they can make an optimal adjustment to community living is called ____________________.

Q: In ____________________, the court held that the use of isolation, hand restraints, and tranquilizing drugs violated many constitutional rights of juveniles.

Q: Group homes, family group homes, wilderness programs, and boot camps are all examples of ____________________.

Q: The primary goal of placing juveniles in institutions is to help them reenter the ____________________ successfully.

Q: ____________________ combine the elements of foster care and group home placements.

Q: Programs for youthful offenders that usually do not confine them overnight are called ____________________.

Q: __________________is the primary form of community treatment.

Q: In juvenile proceedings, the sentencing hearing is referred to as a(an) ____________________.

Q: In _______________________, the Supreme Court granted juveniles due process rights, including an attorney.

Q: The concept of ______________________is the intervention in the lives of families and children in order to protect their general welfare.

Q: Instead of being arrested, juveniles are taken into ____________________.

Q: Youth who are incorrigible, truants, and runaways are called ____________________.

Q: Juvenile records are generally ____________________ when the age of majority is reached.

Q: The U.S. Supreme Court, in the case of Roper v. Simmons, put an end to the practice of the death penalty for juveniles in the United States. a. True b. False

Q: North Carolina was one of the first states to develop Youthful Offender Camps for 16- to 18-year-old males. a. True b. False

Q: West Virginia leads the nation with juveniles serving life sentences without the possibility of parole. a. True b. False

Q: The three major mechanisms used to waive juveniles are judicial waiver, prosecutorial waiver, and statutorial exclusion a. True b. False

Q: Many states permit waiver to the adult court if the juvenile previously has been adjudicated as a delinquent or has a prior criminal conviction. a. True b. False

Q: Because of concern over violent juvenile offenders and the threat they pose to the community, state legislatures have passed laws permitting juveniles to be transferred or waived to adult court, where they can be tried and punished as adults. a. True b. False

Q: Aftercare is not important in the juvenile justice process because most juveniles age out of custody. a. True b. False

Q: Most states have extended thesame legal rights enjoyed by adults at parole revocation hearings to juveniles who are in danger of losing their aftercare privileges. a. True b. False

Q: Juveniles in aftercare programs are supervised by judges whose job is to maintain contact with the juvenile, make sure that a corrections plan is followed, and show interest and caring. a. True b. False

Q: Does the death penalty deter murder? Provide statistical information to support your stance

Q: How do inmates deal with being placed on death row?

Q: How do corrections officers who work on death row view their jobs?

Q: Does the Supreme Court allow the execution of juvenile inmates?

Q: Does the Supreme Court allow the execution of mentally impaired inmates? Explain.

Q: Why does the review process take 10 or more years from conviction to execution?

Q: What is the profile of inmates on death row?

Q: Describe the state court appeals process in a death penalty case.

Q: What is the public opinion related to the death penalty?

Q: What is the international opinion surrounding the death penalty?

Q: The 24 to 48 hours before the execution is known as ____________________.

Q: A ____________________ means that any person opposed in concept to capital punishment is removed during jury selection (voir dire).

Q: The U.S. Supreme Court decision in ____________________ allowed the execution of juveniles who were age 17 at the time of the crime.

Q: The U.S. Supreme Court decided in ____________________that juveniles under the age of 16 at the time of the crime could not be executed.

Q: In ____________________, the Supreme Court prohibited the state from executing persons with mental illness.

Q: ____________________ contends that humanitarian standards require that people with mental impairment should not be subjected to the death penalty.

Q: In Witherspoon v. Illinois, the Supreme Court upheld the practice of removing jurors who ____________________.

Q: In 2002, the Supreme Court ruled in ____________________that execution of the mentally retarded was unconstitutional

Q: In California, murder for profit, murder perpetrated by explosion, and murder of a police officer on active duty are all examples of ____________________.

Q: ____________________was the U.S. Supreme Court decision that declared the death penalty constitutional if certain conditions are met.

Q: The first phase of a capital trial is the ____________________ phase, where the jury determines whether the accused is guilty or not guilty of the capital offense for which he or she is being charged.

Q: A method to limit appeals is to restrict the use of ____________________, which is where prisoners on death row argue that their detention as condemned persons is based on some error in the administration of the law.

Q: The trend worldwide is to ____________________ the death penalty.

Q: ____________________ is the predominant method of execution and is used in 35 states and the federal government.

Q: The value of the death penalty remains a topic of considerable debate. a. True b. False

Q: There is much debate as to whether capital punishment is a deterrent to crime. a. True b. False

Q: Abolitionists make the argument that the death penalty is several times more expensive than confining an inmate for the duration of his or her life. a. True b. False

Q: Challengers to the legitimacy of capital punishment have built their case against the death penalty by the ambiguous language of the Fifth and Sixth Amendments. a. True b. False

Q: Inmates on death row are not allowed to have visitors. a. True b. False

Q: The warden examines the body at the time of execution and pronounces death. a. True b. False

Q: Stanford v. Kentucky upheld the practice of removing jurors who are opposed to the death penalty. a. True b. False

Q: The United States has never executed a mentally ill person. a. True b. False

Q: The United States is one of the few nations that has executed juvenile offenders. a. True b. False

Q: For every one female executed in the United States, three males are executed, meaning only 33 percent of those killed on death row are women. a. True b. False

Q: Abolitionists argue that the death penalty is used in a racist fashion and violates constitutional guarantees of due process and equal protection. a. True b. False

Q: The case of McClesky v. Kemp (1987) was the first landmark case of its kind to bring a halt to the death penalty at the federal level. a. True b. False

Q: One task of the prosecution in a death penalty case is to establish that the sentence should be death because the aggravating causes in the case exceed mitigating causes. a. True b. False

Q: Furman v. Georgia first brought the death penalty to a halt in 1972. a. True b. False

Q: In 2008, the Supreme Court ruled in Baze v. Rees that Kentucky's lethal injection protocol satisfies the Eighth Amendment. a. True b. False

Q: The case of Pulley v. California mandated that at least 10 percent of the jury hearing a death penalty case must be similar in race or gender to the defendant. a. True b. False

Q: The review process can take 10 or more years from conviction to execution. a. True b. False

Q: The electric chair is the most common method used for executions. a. True b. False

Q: The majority of the American public supports the death penalty. a. True b. False