Q&A Hero

Q: The notion that each group member is capable of influencing and directing the group is called a. autocratic leadership. b. laissez-faire leadership. c. situational leadership. d. shared leadership.

Q: An overly cohesive group that avoids challenging one another's ideas is likely to experience a. substantive conflict. b. groupthink. c. affective conflict. d. shared leadership.

Q: A structured, written outline that guides communication among meeting participants is called (a) a. meeting agenda. b. meeting minutes. c. meeting plan. d. meeting outline.

Q: Which view suggests leadership is determined by a group's motivation, group members' experience, and knowledge? a. Style view of leadership b. Situational view of leadership c. Functional view of leadership d. Traits view of leadership

Q: Disagreements about the group's tasks, procedures, or decision options are called (a) a. substantive conflict. b. affective conflict. c. groupthink. d. defensive climate.

Q: Which decision-making method results in team members experiencing greater levels of satisfaction and cohesion? a. Decision by vote b. Decision by consensus c. Decision by authority d. Decision by leader

Q: Which view addresses the types of communication behaviors needed to help a group achieve its goal? a. Traits view of leadership b. Functional view of leadership c. Situational view of leadership d. Style view of leadership

Q: Leaders who use a laissez-faire leadership style allow group members to control what happens. a. True b. False

Q: All of these are among the most common problems in leading and conducting meetings EXCEPT a. participants get off topic. b. no clear agenda is defined. c. meetings take too long. d. leaders must take responsibility for planning.

Q: According to Hersey-Blanchard's definition of the situational view of leadership, what should a leader do when group members have motivation and experience with the group's task? a. Participate b. Tell c. Delegate d. Sell

Q: Which view of leadership focuses on the behaviors leaders use to influence others? a. Traits view b. Situational view c. Style view d. Functional view

Q: Even though Bob is chair of the reunion committee, he lets the group make decisions and take action. Which leadership style is Bob using? a. Democratic b. Situational c. Laissez-faire d. Functional

Q: In which step of the structured problem-solving process would team members be most prone to groupthink? a. Establish criteria for a decision b. Choose the best decision c. Discuss possible solutions d. Define and analyze the problem

Q: Garth wear his earbuds and listens to music on his phone while his group meets. He moves to the music and sometimes even sings along. He does not participate in the group's discussions, and several members have complained to the group leader that his behavior is distracting. What group role is Garth fulfilling? a. Argumentative role b. Task role c. Maintenance role d. Egocentric role

Q: At what stage in the situational view of leadership does shared decision making occur while simultaneously less direction is provided? a. Selling b. Telling c. Participating d. Adjourning

Q: In which phase of group development do members resolve conflicts and begin to work together as a cohesive team? a. Performing b. Storming c. normingNorming d. formingForming

Q: In what phase of group development do members have different ideas on how to approach a task or who should take on leadership roles? a. Norming b. Performing c. Forming d. Storming

Q: A team of individuals working together to achieve a common goal and who communicate primarily through technology is a a. virtual small group. b. primary group. c. secondary group. d. mediated small group.

Q: What are two advantages of an argumentative group member?

Q: What does it mean when a group member assumes an egocentric role and engages in social loafing?

Q: One method of enhancing group cohesiveness is through self-disclosure. a. True b. False

Q: Anticipated or real anxiety associated with communicating with others is a. argumentativeness. b. communication apprehension. c. social loafing. d. cohesiveness.

Q: Your family and friends are examples of which a a. primary group. b. self-help group. c. social group. d. secondary group.

Q: A handful of friends waiting for a yoga class to start is considered to be a group. a. True b. False

Q: Identify three tools that can be used to facilitate virtual communication.

Q: Selim always notices when members of his group are quiet and asks them what they think about the discussion topic. He also detects when members are becoming restless and suggests a break. What group role is Selim fulfilling? a. Task role b. Egocentric role c. Formal role d. Maintenance role

Q: In which phase of group development do group members come to know one another and the tasks? a. Storming b. Norming c. Forming d. Performing

Q: Expectations about behavior within a group are called a. cohesiveness. b. formal roles. c. norms. d. task roles.

Q: Social loafing is an example of a task role. a. True b. False

Q: In which phase of group development do members agree on how to achieve a goal and who will do what? a. Forming b. Norming c. Performing d. Adjourning

Q: Introverted individuals tend to fulfill maintenance roles in small groups. a. True b. False

Q: Which is the correct order for Tuckman's five group development stages? a. Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning b. Forming, norming, performing, storming, adjourning c. Norming, storming, performing, forming, adjourning d. Norming, forming, storming, performing, adjourning

Q: Steve knows his group members think he doesn't care about them or the group, but he actually does. The fact is, he feels intense anxiety about speaking up, even in a small group of classmates. What does this illustrate? a. Social loafing b. Perception checking c. Forming d. Communication apprehension

Q: Ezra isn't afraid to point out when the group is spending too much time socializing. His fellow group members depend on him to keep them on track so they finish what they need to accomplish on time. What role is Ezra fulfilling? a. Task role b. Maintenance role c. Egocentric role d. Formal role

Q: According to your text, all of these are challenges posed by virtual groups EXCEPT a. physical distance. b. save money and time. c. hard to build cohesion. d. varied ability to use communication technology.

Q: The individuals who meet your basic life, psychological, and social needs are a. primary groups. b. secondary groups. c. small groups. d. virtual small groups.

Q: What is likely to be true of group members who experience high communication apprehension as compared to those with lower communication apprehension? a. More likely to express their opinions b. May appear as aloof, stiff, withdrawn c. Demonstrate more confidence d. Demonstrate small group competence

Q: Being highly argumentative and being verbally aggressive are both considered to have a negative impact on groups. a. True b. False

Q: Task and maintenance roles are formal roles. a. True b. False

Q: A local chapter of Alcoholics Anonymous is an example of a a. primary group. b. secondary group. c. virtual group. d. cohesive group.

Q: On the last day of class, Sara's chemistry study group meets at a coffeehouse to celebrate their final exam being over. They are all a little sad that they will no longer see one another in their study sessions every week because the study group has run its course. What stage of group development does this represent? a. Performing b. Storming c. Adjourning d. Norming

Q: Members who exchange information about a duty or goal important to your group are fulfilling a. egocentric roles. b. maintenance roles. c. task roles. d. formal roles.

Q: When a team member's communication disrupts a group's efforts, that individual is fulfilling a(n) a. egocentric role. b. argumentative role. c. communication apprehension d. storming role.

Q: During the storming phase of group development, conflict arises. a. True b. False

Q: Members of virtual small groups a. meet and communicate in real time. b. meet in person at least once. c. are separated by physical distance. d. experience technology failures.

Q: In which phase of group development do members complete their task? a. Performing b. Storming c. Norming d. Forming

Q: What type of roles are taken on by appointment or election? a. Task roles b. Maintenance roles c. Egocentric roles d. Formal roles

Q: In which phase of group development do members disband? a. Storming b. Adjourning c. Performing d. Norming

Q: The objective or purpose of a group is called (its) a. interaction. b. goal. c. common identity. d. interdependence.

Q: Which is a characteristic of small groups? a. Interdependent persons b. Common identity c. Common goal d. All of the options are correct.

Q: In what type of group do you work with people to achieve specific goals or perform tasks? a. Cohesive group b. Virtual group c. Primary group d. Secondary group

Q: In which of Tuckman's group development stages might members compete for status and openly disagree? a. Performing b. Storming c. Norming d. Forming

Q: A group member who communicates in a way that builds trust and appreciative interpersonal relationships in a group fulfills a(n) a. formal role. b. task role. c. maintenance role. d. egocentric role.

Q: When Maria works with her small group in her communication class, she asks questions to clarify what her groupmates are saying and helps to synthesize their various thoughts and opinions. What role is Maria fulfilling? a. Maintenance role b. Task role c. Group role d. Formal role

Q: In which type of egocentric role does a teammate rely on other members to do all the work? a. Argumentative b. Social loafing c. Apprehensive d. Storming

Q: In which phase of group development do members assume appropriate roles and work productively? a. Performing b. Storming c. Adjourning d. Norming

Q: Why should you try to meet face-to-face rather than through mediated channels when collaborating?

Q: Honest messages hidden to protect a partner's feelings are a. destructive messages. b. dirty secrets. c. sniping. d. sudden-death statements.

Q: Integrative agreements occur a. when two people develop a creative solution to solve their problem. b. when one party withdraws from the conflict encounter. c. when people manage emotion and use collaboration to manage conflict. d. when one person uses accommodation while the other gets his or her way.

Q: Which is defined as the ability to influence or control resources, people, or events? a. Competition b. Escalation c. Conflict d. Power

Q: In which approach to conflict do people confront others and pursue their own goals while excluding others? a. Destructive messages b. Competition c. Cumulative annoyance d. Pseudo-conflict

Q: Conflict begins with communication. a. True b. False

Q: Which of these refers to sudden termination of communication contact? a. Avoidance b. Separation c. Sniping d. Pseudo-conflict

Q: Which statement is true regarding compromise? a. It is often the result of collaboration. b. It works best when there is an imbalance of power. c. It is the conflict conclusion least likely to lead to resentment. d. It is the most constructive approach for managing conflict.

Q: Stephen accuses his girlfriend of lying about where she goes on the weekends and texting other guys frequently. He says, "I should have known you'd be a bad girlfriend, since your last three boyfriends broke up with you." Stephen is engaging in a. integrative agreement. b. separation. c. kitchen sinking. d. escalation.

Q: Collaborative conflict management includes all of the following EXCEPT a. attacking the problem, not people. b. focusing on common interests. c. evaluating your solution. d. engaging in pseudo-conflict.

Q: Competition as an approach to managing conflict occurs when people abandon their own goals and acquiesce to the desires of their relational partners. a. True b. False

Q: If a member of your group is more focused on their own goals than on the group's needs, which approach to conflict is that member is demonstrating? a. Accommodation b. Competition c. Avoidance d. Compromise

Q: People from collectivistic cultures avoid direct confrontation and discussion of conflict. a. True b. False

Q: When filing for divorce, Kendra's husband states, "Let''s try to figure out a plan so we can both end up happy and have joint custody of the kids." What conflict-management style is he attempting to use? a. Collaboration b. Competition c. Accommodation d. Withdrawal

Q: In which approach to conflict do people abandon their own goals and acquiesce to the desires of another person? a. Avoidance b. Accommodation c. Separation d. Compromise

Q: Which statement regarding the relationships between culture and conflict is accurate? a. Individualists and collectivists approach conflict differently. b. Individualists prefer to use avoidance. c. Collectivists prefer to use collaboration. d. Collectivists prefer to keep conflict just between two people.

Q: Spontaneous declarations to end a relationship due to conflict are called a. sudden-death statements. b. attributional errors. c. sniping. d. dirty secrets.

Q: The communication process between people who perceive incompatible goals or interference in achieving their objectives is a. avoidance. b. conflict. c. escalation. d. sniping.

Q: While attending a movie, you are disturbed by a child behind you who talks incessantly while repeatedly kicking the back of your seat. You respond by occasionally turning around and fidgeting in your seat. What type of conflict-management style are you exhibiting? a. Competition b. Accommodation c. Avoidance d. Withdrawal

Q: If the United States makes demands of Syria, which, in turn, makes its own demands of the United States, and both parties agree to make concessions while neither party gets exactly what they wanted, what conflict resolution is being realized? a. Domination b. Compromise c. Competition d. Accommodation

Q: The most constructive approach to managing conflict is a. accommodation. b. compromise. c. collaboration. d. competition.

Q: Escalation is a. a decrease in intensity of conflict. b. one risk of using competition. c. a result of terminating a relationship. d. when people disclose hurtful feelings about their partner.

Q: Which statement describes the relationship between power and conflict? a. People without power are less likely to use accommodation. b. People with power are less likely to use collaboration. c. People with power can choose to use or not use accommodation. d. People without power often use avoidance.

Q: Makenzie and her boyfriend, Zachary, have a serious argument. She demands he delete her contact information, and he blocks her on his phone and social media. Which conflict ending is illustrated here? a. Separation b. Domination c. Compromise d. Avoidance