Q&A Hero

Q: Which Act established the National Labor Relations Board? A) Taft-Hartley Act B) Patriot Act C) Labor-Management Relations Act D) Occupational Safety and Health Act E) Wagner Act

Q: Which of the following set up procedures for employees to vote on their desire for union representation? A) Taft-Hartley Act B) Labor-Management Relations Act C) Occupational Safety and Health Act D) Wagner Act E) Patriot Act

Q: In a short essay, define planning and discuss the characteristics of formal planning as it is used in various organizations.

Q: Studies indicate that doing a good job planning and implementing those plans play a bigger part in high performance than does how much planning is done.

Q: What is the purpose of the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993? A) To extend the length of maternity leaves B) To allow employees to take a leave of absence with pay C) To allow employees to take a leave of absence for family or medical emergencies or when a child is born D) To increase the percentage of payroll spent on health care for workers E) To ensure financial security for all employees, regardless of circumstance

Q: Which of the following Acts helps to ensure the financial security of pension funds? A) Employee Retirement Income Security Act B) Wagner Act C) Age Discrimination in Employment Act D) Equal Pay Act E) Fair Labor Standards Act

Q: Several research studies have conclusively proven that planning organizations always outperform non-planning organizations.

Q: The Age Discrimination in Employment Act requires passive nondiscrimination. How do employers practice passive nondiscrimination? A) By seeking employees who are protected by the act B) By seeking minorities who are protected by the act C) By providing special treatment to women and minorities D) By treating all who apply fairly E) By increasing salaries for workers covered by the Act

Q: Planning helps managers eliminate uncertainty and insulates organizations from change.

Q: Who is defined as an older worker under the Age Discrimination in Employment Act? A) Those over 30 years of age B) Those over 40 years of age C) Those over 50 years of age D) Those over 60 years of age E) Those over 70 years of age

Q: The presence of planning inhibits the ability of departments and individuals to work together or organizations to move.

Q: When must an employer have a written affirmative action plan that details how underused groups will be pursued? A) When the employer applies for a loan B) When the employer wants to issue stock C) When the employer holds government contracts D) When the employer expands operations internationally E) When the employer is privately held

Q: Planning provides direction to managers and non-managers alike.

Q: Which of the following is used to identify employment goals for underused groups, and how those goals will be achieved? A) Civil rights B) Affirmative action plans C) Equal employment D) Adverse impact E) Supply and demand

Q: Planning is concerned with how objectives are to be accomplished, not what is to be accomplished.

Q: When formal planning fails to lead to higher performance, which one of the following is most likely to be the reason for the failure? A) A participative style of planning was used. B) Managers were allowed too much autonomy. C) The company emphasized the control function over other functions. D) External forces constrain managers' options.

Q: What legal defense can an employer use when charged with using a pre-employment test that creates adverse impact? A) Evidence that the test identifies those who are better able to do the job than others B) Evidence that the employer sought out minorities C) Evidence that the employer treated all employees the same D) Evidence that the test included goals for underused groups E) Evidence that the test identified how hiring goals will be met

Q: Which of the following allows either the employer or the employee to terminate an employment relationship for any reason and at any time? A) Quid pro quo B) The National Labor Relations Act C) Employment at will D) The Patriot Act E) Taft- Hartley Act

Q: Which one of the following is true of the impact of formal planning on organizational performance? A) Formal planning is associated with positive financial results. B) Organizations that formally plan invariably outperform those that don't plan. C) The amount of planning done is more important to high performance than the quality of planning and implementation. D) Companies can start seeing the impact of formal planning on performance about a year after starting the planning process.

Q: How does the EEOC define sexual harassment in the workplace? A) A single off-color joke that makes a worker uncomfortable B) Any unwelcomed sexual advances C) Persistent sexual advances D) Unwelcome sexual advances made only by members of the opposite sex E) Behavior that is sexual in nature only when it is instigated by a supervisor

Q: Which one of the following is among the reasons why managers should plan? A) When work activities are coordinated around plans, inefficiencies become obvious. B) Uncertainty can be eliminated and the organization can be insulated from change with planning. C) Planning eliminates the need to set goals. D) Planning eliminates the need to measure work effort.

Q: Which Act increased management rights when a union is attempting to organize a group within an organization? A) Taft-Hartley B) OSHA C) Wagner Act D) NLRA E) ERISA

Q: The effect of planning on managers is that it forces them to ________. A) generate higher profits B) anticipate and respond to change C) eliminate uncertainty D) work at cross purposes

Q: Which type of plan allows employers to intentionally seek out employees from underrepresented groups within the organization? A) Civil Rights B) Adverse impact C) Employment at will D) Patriot Act E) Affirmative action

Q: ________ involves defining the organization's goals, establishing strategies for achieving those goals, and developing plans to integrate and coordinate work activities. A) Execution B) Logistics C) Planning D) Operations

Q: Who is charged with enforcing the provisions outlined in Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964? A) Supreme Court B) ERISA C) OSHA D) EEOC E) NLRB

Q: If Kelly were to consider enhancing productivity by giving greater authority to her subordinates and increasing formalization, she would be considering ________ changes. A) structural B) technological C) people D) strategy

Q: Which Act established the minimum wage and mandated overtime payable to employees who work more than 40 hours per week? A) ERISA B) Wagner Act C) Fair Labor Standards Act D) Taft-Hartley Act E) Civil Rights Act of 1964

Q: Structural component changes include ________. A) combining departmental responsibilities B) changing work processes C) changing attitudes D) changing behavior

Q: Which of the following pieces of legislation made it easier to sue an employer for discrimination, but limited how much could be awarded in damages? A) Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972 B) Civil Rights Act of 1991 C) Equal Pay Act of 1963 D) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 E) Fair Labor Standards Act

Q: Colin believes his organization could be more profitable if it could respond to customers more quickly so he has decided to remove some management layers and increase the remaining managers' span of control. These would be considered changes in ________. A) structural design B) structural process C) degree of centralization D) structural components

Q: Which key piece of legislation made it illegal to discriminate in key areas of employment, including hiring, promotion, and compensation? A) Executive Order 11246 B) Civil Rights Act of 1991 C) Equal Pay Act of 1963 D) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 E) Fair Labor Standards Act

Q: During the great recession, average household discretionary income declined. Families sought less expensive alternatives for luxury items. Producers adjusted by offering lighter-weight, lower-cost items. These producers changed their ________. A) strategies B) structures C) people D) technology

Q: Under which legal concept is it legal for a manager to discharge an employee without advance notice? A) Quid pro quo B) Affirmative action C) Employment at will D) Joint agreement E) Arbitration

Q: Organizational change is any alteration of ________. A) people, structure, or technology B) structure, management, or goals C) technology, goals, or management D) rules, procedures, or management

Q: Which of the following constitutes an illegal hiring practice under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964? A) Asking someone about their availability because the position requires a 50-hour work week B) Establishing a diversity committee to help diverse employees connect with each other C) Asking a candidate whether or not he attends church, because it is important that candidates are available to work on Saturdays and Sundays D) Keeping track of how many males and females are in the organization E) Requiring an applicant to specify gender on an application

Q: Describe and explain the "calm waters" view of organizational change.

Q: Which legal concept holds that both employer and employee have the mutual right to terminate an employment relationship any time, for any reason, and without advance notice to the other? A) Quid pro quo B) Affirmative action C) Employment at will D) Mutual consent E) Equal employment opportunity

Q: Identify some of the external and internal forces of change.

Q: Identify the difference between a job description and a job specification and explain how they each support the job analysis process.

Q: In the "white-water rapids" metaphor of change, change is seen as an occasional disruption in the normal flow of events.

Q: Discuss the strategic importance of human resources within an organization.

Q: The "white-water rapids" metaphor of change is consistent with Lewin's concept of unfreezing, changing, and refreezing.

Q: How do human resource managers use job analysis for human resource planning?

Q: Bob is the noon manager at a fast-food hamburger restaurant. As soon as he saw the bus pull into the parking lot, he ordered the cooks to put down as many patties as the grill would hold and shifted his people around so every cash register was open. Bob's response was ________. A) inactive B) proactive C) deactive D) retroactive

Q: Talent management reflects the organization's investment in attracting and motivating an effective workforce.

Q: When the Pinto cars made by Ford were increasingly involved in fatal rear-crash accidents, Ford officials made a decision to discontinue that model. Their decision was a(n) ________ change. A) inactive B) proactive C) reactive D) retroactive

Q: Replacement charts can be used to forecast the external supply of candidates for senior managerial positions in the organization.

Q: New Ideas, Inc., focuses on new ideas, uses technology that changes frequently, and has strong competition in the market. This situation describes what metaphor of change? A) a shallow water metaphor B) a falling water rapid metaphor C) a rapid water metaphor D) a white-water rapids metaphor

Q: A systematic study of jobs within an organization is conducted through a job analysis.

Q: "If it's not one thing, it's another. We just get used to doing things one way and suddenly that's not good enough anymore. It's a new machine here, a new manager there, changing customer demands-it never ends!" This is an example of ________. A) the water over the dam metaphor B) the calm waters metaphor C) the white-water rapids metaphor D) the falling water metaphor

Q: Discuss why the majority of decisions made by managers are made under a state of uncertainty, and how managers can minimize the risk of poor decisions.

Q: According to Lewin, which of the following is the objective of refreezing? A) directing behavior away from the change B) hindering the existing equilibrium C) eliminating the need for future change D) stabilizing the new situation

Q: Discuss ways in which using a rational perspective to decision making will help when making nonprogrammed decisions.

Q: The unfreezing step of the change process can be thought of as ________. A) changing to a new state B) sustaining a change over time C) changing the organizational structure D) preparing for the needed change

Q: Describe the steps involved in the rational decision-making process.

Q: What are three common constraints limiting the development of alternatives in the rational decision-making process?

Q: According to Kurt Lewin, increasing the driving forces is a means of ________. A) unfreezing B) changing C) restraining D) refreezing

Q: According to Kurt Lewin, which of the following is a stage in the change process? A) restraining B) driving C) processing D) unfreezing

Q: Besides having more structure than a nonprogrammed decision, programmed decisions also recur more often.

Q: Lewin's three-step process is consistent with the ________ theory of organizational change. A) white-water rapids B) shallow waters C) smooth waters D) calm waters

Q: An escalation of commitment indicates the increased support of all members and leadership in the action.

Q: Business had been humming along just fine until the Great Recession hit. Benton Industries adjusted by laying off employees until the recession ended then hired them back. Then it was back to business as usual. This is an example of ________. A) the shallow water metaphor B) the calm waters metaphor C) the white-water rapids metaphor D) the falling water metaphor

Q: When making a decision, finding multiple acceptable alternatives may be possible; however, selecting just one and rejecting all others is critical.

Q: In the ________ metaphor, change is normal and expected and managing it is a continual process. A) calm waters B) white-water rapids C) smooth water D) water over the dam

Q: Managers with a high degree of risk propensity tend to rely heavily on intuition.

Q: The two metaphors commonly used to describe the two views of the change process are ________. A) smooth water and troubled water B) calm waters and white-water rapids C) shallow water and falling water D) burning bridge and water over the dam

Q: The more important the decision, the more attention needs to be directed to developing alternatives.

Q: Fuel prices keep spiraling upward so recreational vehicle manufacturers are being pressured to produce lighter units that can be pulled by smaller trucks. This situation is representative of ________. A) a driving force B) a social force C) a restraining force D) an economic force

Q: Because of the complexity and dynamism of organizations, what decision-making state occurs when risks, alternatives, and consequences are unknown? A) A state of recognition B) A state of risk C) A state of rationality D) A state of certainty E) A state of uncertainty

Q: Discuss the four internal factors that cause change in an organization, giving an example of each factor.

Q: When a manager must make a guess as to the probabilities associated with each alternative, what decision-making state is that manager working in? A) Rationality B) Certainty C) Risk D) Recognition E) Uncertainty

Q: Discuss the four external factors that prompt change in an organization, giving an example of each factor. Explain how the factor affects the organization

Q: What decision-making state occurs when identifying each alternative and the associated costs and payoffs of those alternatives? A) A state of recognition B) A state of risk C) A state of rationality D) A state of certainty E) A state of uncertainty

Q: Employees who prefer stability are less likely to try new technology.

Q: When does a state of certainty exist in a decision-making process? A) When conditions and alternatives are understood B) When conditions are complex and turbulent C) When potential payoffs and costs are determined D) When decisions are made based on intuition, judgment, and experience E) When the conditions are clearly defined and the need for a decision is clear

Q: Cost-cutting measures tend to exacerbate the conditions that led to the need for cutting costs.

Q: When there is little ambiguity in the decision-making process, what decision-making condition exists? A) A state of recognition B) A state of risk C) A state of rationality D) A state of certainty E) A state of uncertainty

Q: Government regulations are considered an internal factor for change because they force the business to change how it functions.

Q: What type of decision-making process should be used for basic operating systems, procedures, and standard organizational transactions? A) Conditional B) Strategic C) Programmed D) Ethical E) Nonprogrammed